Citation : 2021 Latest Caselaw 15503 Bom
Judgement Date : 28 October, 2021
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0IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY
BENCH AT AURANGABAD
WRIT PETITION NO.3347 OF 2020
Deelip Suryabhan Peste
Age 48 years, Occ. Legal Practitioner,
R/o Limbalwadi (Nalegaon),
Ta. Chakur, District Latur. ...Petitioner
Versus
1. The State of Maharashtra
Through its Secretary,
Law and Judiciary Department,
(Notary Cell) E-05th Floor,
Mantralaya, Mumbai.
2. The Interview Board,
Law and Judiciary Department,
(Notary Cell) E-05th Floor,
Mantralaya, Mumbai.
3. Purushottam Vaijnath Shete
Age 45 years, Occ. Advocate & Notary,
R/o Notary, Civil Judge, Junior Division,
Chakur Tal. Chakur, Dist. Latur ...Respondents
...
Mr. Deelip Suryabhan Peste, Petitioner-in-person. Mr. P.S. Patil, AGP for the Respondent Nos. 1 & 2.
Mr. N.P. Patil Jamalpurkar, Advocate for Respondent No.3.
...
CORAM : RAVINDRA V. GHUGE & S.G. MEHARE, J.J.
RESERVED ON : 21st SEPTEMBER, 2021 PRONOUNCED ON : 28th OCTOBER, 2021
JUDGMENT (PER S.G. MEHARE, J.):-
1. Rule. Rule made returnable forthwith and heard fnally by
consent of the parties.
2. The advocate/petitioner approached this Court for seeking
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directions to set aside the order dated 14.02.2020 passed by the
Superintendent (Law), Law and Judiciary Department, Mantralaya
Mumbai, in Review Application No.907-2019/Notary/E as well as
direction to respondent no.1 to issue a certifcate of appointment of a
notary public in his favour.
3. The petitioner supports the issues raised in this petition by
contending that since 2001 he has been practicing law at Chakur and
Latur District Court. The Government of Maharashtra had issued a
Gazette Notifcation dated 18.05.2016 bearing No.251 of 2016 inviting
the applications from the eligible candidates for the appointment of the
notary public at Chakur, Udgir, Ausa, and Shirur-Anantpal for one post
each. In the said notifcation, it was specifcally mentioned that the
application should be submitted as per Notary Rules, 1956 particularly,
Rule 3 and 4 in Form-2 of the Notaries Rules, 1956. The petitioner has
submitted his application through District Judge/ Presiding Ofcer Latur
on 15.06.2016. The learned Principal District Judge, Latur issued a
recommendation order on 16.06.2016 in his favour. The respondent
called him for an interview vide communication dated 14.11.2017 along
with other similarly situated candidates on 24.11.2017. He faced the
interview and secured 25 marks. However, the selection board has
recommended the name of a suitable candidate to the Government. He
was not intimated the order of the decision on the recommendations
made by the board. He learnt that respondent no.4, who has secured
only 21 marks, has been appointed as a notary public for Chakur
Taluka.
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4. The petitioner is the only candidate who has complied with
the notifcation inviting the application and sent his application through
the Principal District Judge, Latur. The appointment of respondent no.3
is against the Notary Rules. He got the information under the Right to
Information Act from the Ofce of District Court, Latur, that except him
and Keshav Narayan Kardile, nobody has submitted the application for
a notary public to his Ofce. The respondents have invited the other
candidates who have not applied for notary as per rules and interviewed
them. Knowing about the illegal appointment of respondent no.3, he
complained under Rule 8 sub-rule 3 of Notaries Rules, 1956 with
respondent no.2. Upon hearing, his complaint was rejected directing
him to fle a review application. Accordingly, on 15.10.2019, he fled a
review application with the competent authority. Upon hearing him on
the said application, his review application is rejected by the impugned
order.
5. The petitioner submits that the State Government has
appointed a person as a public notary for Taluka Chakur, who has
secured less marks than him and had not applied through proper
channels, i.e., Principal District Judge. Therefore, the impugned order is
illegal and in breach of the notary rules. He is the only eligible candidate
for appointing as a notary public for Taluka Chakur. Therefore, the
impugned order may be quashed and set aside, and respondent no.1 be
directed to appoint him as a notary public.
6. Respondent nos.1 and 2 by their afdavit in reply have
come with a case that the applications were invited as pointed out by the
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applicant. In all, 10 applications were received for Chakur Taluka. The
committee has scrutinized the applications. The committee found all 10
candidates suitable. Hence, interviews were conducted on 24.11.2017.
The interview board has recommended the names of all those 10
candidates to the Government as per Rule 7-A of the Notaries Rules,
1956. The Government approved the name of respondent no.3 and
accordingly appointed him. The allegations leveled by the petitioner are
in general and hence were denied. The Principal District Judge, Latur,
had not recommended, but only forwarded the application of the
petitioner to the Competent Authority (Notary Cell) Government of
Maharashtra, Mumbai. The necessary and relevant rules have been
followed in letter and spirit. In the exercise of powers under Rule 8 of
the Notaries Rules, 1956, the Government approved the name of
respondent no.3. The rule does not mandate that the application be
routed through the Principal District Judge only to appoint the notary
public. In other words, there is no bar to fle or submit the application
directly to the authority concerned. In the the exercise of it's power, the
Government has appointed respondent no.3 and committed no error of
law. Hence, the petition is devoid of merit.
7. The petitioner in person submits that in view of Rule 4 of
the Notaries Rules, 1956, he applied for the appointment of the notary
public for Chakur Taluka through Principal District Judge, Latur. In
2016, all the applications had to be routed through the District Judge or
Tribunal, where the candidates were practicing. Therefore, the
application fled directly to the competent authority should not have been
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considered. He was the only candidate who had followed the mandate
of the rules. Therefore, the applications of other applicants should not
have been considered by the interviewing board. It is a violation of the
law since he was the only eligible candidate, who ought to have been
appointed, but without assigning any reason, respondent no.3 who had
secured less marks than him, has been appointed. That is the
discrimination and violation of Article 14 and 16 of the Constitution of
India.
8. He further argued that the Government has failed to inform
any order passed by it regarding the appointment of the notary. The
interviewing board has specifcally recommended the name of the
candidate as per merit based on the marks secured in the interview, but
till this date, whom the board had recommended, is undercover. He
would further argue that as per Rule 8 of the Notaries Rules, 1956, once
the recommendations are made by the competent authority/interview
board, the Government shall consider the recommendations and
appoint the person recommended by the interview board. The
Government has no discretion to appoint the person not recommended
by the Interview Board. As per Rule 8 of the Notaries Rules, 1956, the
Government should allow or reject the application. The reasons quoted
in the impugned order are contrary to the provisions of law. The
mandate of law is apparently violated by the respondents and had
shown unnecessary favour to respondent no.3. Therefore, the impugned
order is liable to be set aside.
9. The learned AGP for the State would argue that there is no
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substance in the petition. The petitioner has not challenged the
appointment of respondent no.3. He has come before the Court seeking
the quashing of the impugned order, which was on the sole ground that
only the applications fled through the Principal District Judge should
have been valid and the committee could have considered no other
applications. The record indicates that the notary rules are strictly
followed, and the appointment of respondent no.3 is legal and valid.
10. Shri Patil, learned Counsel for respondent no.3, has
opposed the petition on various grounds. His frst limb of argument is
that recommendations of the interview board are absolutely not binding
on the Government. It is the sole desire of the Government to appoint
any one of the persons recommended by the interview board. The
interview board has recommended all the candidates being suitable.
The interview board has not explicitly recommended the name of any of
the applicants. The appointment of respondent no.3 is not challenged.
Therefore, the relief as prayed for by the petitioner could not be granted.
To bolster his arguments, he relied upon case law that will be
considered in the following paragraphs.
11. The frst limb of argument of the petitioner is that the
competent authority should only consider the applications routed
through Principal District Judge. He referred to the notifcation dated
18.05.2016 whereby the applications from the practicing lawyers for the
appointment of the notary public for Chakur and other Talukas, were
invited. As against this, the learned Counsel for respondent no. 3, has
raised a serious objection that in 2016 there was no procedure to route
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the application only through the District Judge.
12. In the circular dated 18.05.2016, it is specifcally mentioned
that the applications are invited in the prescribed Form and procedure
as prescribed in rule 4 and candidates eligible under rule 3 Notaries
Rules,1956 in Form-I/ Form-II.
13. Rule 4 of the Notaries Rules,1956 (Rules 1956 for short)
pertains to the application for appointment as a Notary. As per the said
rule, on the notifcation issued by the Government in the ofcial gazette,
a person may apply for an appointment as a notary in Form-I or Form-II
as applicable. The petitioner has referred to Section 4 and argued that
in 2016, Rule 4 was in force. He strenuously pressed into service rule
4(1), which was in existence in 2016. The book he has referred to
indicates that the applications should be routed through the Principal
District Judge or Tribunal, where the applicant is practicing.
14. Rule 4 was amended frstly in 2009 and was brought into
effect from 01.03.2009. The amended Rule 4(1) of 2009 reads thus:
"4 Application for appointment as a notary. (1) A person may make an application for appointment as a notary (hereinafter called "the applicant"), through the concerned District Judge or the Presiding Ofcer of the Court or Tribunal where he practices as an Advocate, in the Form of memorial addressed to such ofcer or authority (hereinafter referred to as the "competent authority") of the appropriate Government as that Government may, by notifcation in the Ofcial Gatette, designate in this behalf."
By G.S.R. 700(E) dated September 24 2009
(w.e.f.24.09.2009)sub
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rule 2-A was inserted, which reads thus,
"(2A) A person applying in Form II for appointment as a notary may submit the memorial direct to the Competent Authority of the appropriate government".
Subsection 3 was as follows;
"3. The memorial of a person referred to in clause (a) of rule 3 shall be signed by the applicant and shall be countersigned by the following persons:-
(a) a Magistrate;
(b) a Manager of a nationalised bank;
(c) a merchant and
(d) two prominent inhabitants of the local area within which the applicant intends to practise as a notary.
12. The above sub-rule (2A) and (3) were omitted by G.S.R. 821 (E) dated 5.11.2019 (w.e.f. 6.11.2019)
13. Before the substitution of Rule 4(1) in 2009, the said rule stood as under.
4 (1) A person may make an application for appointment as a notary (hereinafter called "the applicant") in the form of memorial addressed to such ofcer or authority (hereinafter referred to as the "Competent authority") of the appropriate Government as that Government may, by notifcation in the Ofcial Gatette, designate in this behalf.
14. Rule 4 (1) then amended in 2019, (w.e.f. 06.11.2019) which reads thus;
"4(1) A person may make an application for appointment as a notary (hereinafter called "the applicant") online in Form I or Form II as applicable, addressed to such ofcer or authority (hereinafter referred to as the "competent authority") of the appropriate Government as that Government may, by notifcation in the Ofcial Gatette, designate in this behalf.G
After extensive research, we fnd that till 06.11.2019, rules
4(1), 2-A and 3 of Rules 1956, the rules substituted in 2009, were
in force.
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15. The circular dated 18.05.2016 by which the applications
were invited by the Law and judiciary department further mention that all
the eligible candidate shall send the applications in the prescribed Form
either by registered post/speed post only. In the light of inviting the
applications directly by post, the question is, does the notifcation
override the prescribed procedure laid in rule 4 (1) of Rules 1956?
Reading the circular dated 18.05.2016, it appears to be just an
advertisement inviting the applications from the eligible candidates.
16. Rule 4(1) of the rules 1956, provided that the appropriate
Government may designate the Competent Authority to whom the
applications are to be addressed by notifcation in the Ofcial Gazette.
Rule 6 of the Rules 1956 provides for the preliminary action on the
applications. The competent authority has to examine the correctness of
such applications, whether any earlier application of the applicant is
rejected within the six months before the application. He may, if deems
ft, ascertain from any Bar Council, Bar Association, Incorporated Law
Society, or other authority in the area where the applicant proposes to
practice. He has also to ascertain the objection, if any, received
against the applicant to appoint him/her as a Notary Public. He has to
examine whether the application is submitted in time.
17. Under rule 7, the competent authority has to hold such an
inquiry as he thinks ft, give the applicant an opportunity of hearing on
the objections against his appointment, and report to the appropriate
Government recommending that the applicant be allowed to appear
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before the Interview Board. Sub-rule 3 of Rule 7 speaks of while making
the recommendation the competent authority shall have due regard to;
(a) whether, the applicant ordinarily resides in the area in which
he propose to practice as a notary;
(b) whether, having regard to the commercial importance of the
area in which the applicant proposes to practice and the number of
existing notaries practicing in the area, it is necessary to appoint
any additional notary for that area;
(c) whether, having regard to his knowledge and experience of
commercial law and the nature of the objections, if any, raised in
respect of his appointment as a notary, and in any case of a legal
practitioner also to the extent of his practice, the applicant is ft to be
appointed as a notary;
(d) where the applicant belongs to the frm of legal practitioners,
whether, having regard to number of existing notaries in that frm, it
is proper and necessary to appoint any additional notary from that
frm; and
(e) where the applications from other applicants in respect of the
area are pending, whether the applicant is more suitable than such
other applicants.
18. The above rules describe the powers and duties of the
competent authority. Where the law or rules determine the powers and
duties of any authority, no authority can travel beyond such powers,
unless the appointing Authority is expressly conferred with any such
powers. The rules are principles governing conduct or procedure within
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a particular area of activity. Rules have the force of law. Nothing can be
done against the rules. The rules bind the concerned authority who has
to follow it. Where a particular procedure is laid down in the rules, the
implementing authority has to follow the procedure prescribed under
such rules. Rules help guide actions towards the desired result.
19. Reading rule 4 (1) as was in existence in the year 2016, the
procedure to apply for the appointment as a notary as a law practitioner,
was that every such application by the legal practitioner, shall be routed
through the concerned District judge or the Presiding Ofcer of the
Court, or Tribunal where he was practicing law. Considering the powers
and duties of the competent authority as discussed above and in the
absence of new rule or specifc power, we are of the view that, the
settled principle of law, that, where the manner of doing a particular act
is prescribed under the statute, the act must be done in that manner or
not at all, shall be applied. The competent authority had no powers to
consider the applications from the candidates from the legal practitioner
directly sent by registered or speed post deviating the rules calling such
application through the district judge or presiding ofcer of the Court or
tribunal.
20. In view of the above, we fnd force in the argument of the
petitioner that in 2016, it was the mandate of rule 4 (1) of the Rules
1956, that the applications from the candidates practicing law should be
routed through the District Judge, or Presiding Ofcers of the Court or
Tribunal only. While rejecting the review application of the petitioner,
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the Superintendent for the Government assigned the reason that rule
4(1) does not provide to, mandatorily, submit the application through the
District Judge. She has emphasized the word "May" used in rule 4(1),
and tried to interpret it as not obligatory. The authority passing the
impugned order on review application of the petitioner, appears to have
lost sight of sub-rule (2) and (3) of rule 4 of the Rules 1956, wherein it is
provided that the memorial shall be drawn by a person referred to in
clause (a) of rule 3 in accordance with Form I and by a person referred
to in clause (b) and (c) of the said rule in accordance with Form II.
Clause (a) of rule 3 relates to the candidates practicing law. The term
"may" used in rule 4(1) of the Rules 1956 pertains to the applicant who
desires to appoint him as a notary. It is not relating to the procedure,
how to apply for the appointment as a notary. The applications shall be
in the forms prescribed in the Rules 1956. Form-I is for the persons
practicing law. Form II is for persons other than the persons practicing
law. As such, the application shall be in the prescribed Form only. The
authority passing the impugned order, under misconception, wrongly
interpreted the rules and applied the procedure applicable to the
candidates other than the applicants practicing law, to the application of
the petitioner. Therefore, the authority passing the impugned order had
arrived at an incorrect conclusion. For these reasons, we hold that the
impugned order is erroneous.
21. The petitioner has vehemently argued that the District
Judge used to recommend the names of the suitable candidates for the
appointment of notary, and his recommendations were binding on the
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Government.
22. To counter the above argument of the petitioner, the
learned counsel for respondent no.3 has vehemently argued that the
recommendation of any authority is not binding on the appointing
authority or the Government in this case. To bolster his arguments, he
relied upon the case of Dr. Prem Lata Vs GNCT of Delhi and Ors in
W.P.(C) 178/2011 decided on May 3, 2011 by the Delhi High Court.
This was the case concerning the appointment to the Ofce of the
President of District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (District
Forum), Delhi. The selection committee was constituted in accordance
with Section 10(1A) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. The
selection committee made its recommendation for flling up the
vacancies in the Ofce of fve districts. The name of the petitioner did
not fgure in the names of fve selected candidates in the said
recommendation. However, his name was mentioned as a "second
person", in the event of Mr. M.C. Mehra whose name was fgured at
serial no.4 in the list of selected candidates, not joining. The petitioner
claimed that the panel was subsequently revised, and inspite the
petitioner, being a candidate in waiting in the event of Mr. M.C. Mehra
not joining, his name was placed at serial no.6 i.e. entitled to join in the
event of any frst fve selected candidates not joining within 45 days of
the offer of appointment. Respondent nos.4, 5, and 6, whose names
appeared at serial nos.1, 2, and 5 respectively of the selected
candidates, did not join within 45 days from the offer of appointment.
Therefore, he became entitled to be appointed. He made a
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representation seeking his appointment, but it was not entertained.
Hence, he approached before the Delhi High Court.
23. On the basis of the above facts, the Delhi High Court
referred to various case laws of the Hon'ble Apex Court. Relying on the
case of Divisional Forests Officer and Ors Vs. M. Ramalinga Reddy
(2007), 9 SCC 286, which lays down that selected candidates have no
legal right to be appointed automatically.
24. The learned Counsel Shri Patil would further relied on the
case of State of Kerala Vs. A . Lakshmikutty, (1986) 4 SCC 632 . It was
the case of the recommendations of respondents for the posts of District
Judge. The candidates were recommended by the High Court.
However, by its decision dated 30.01.1985 and 28.02.1985, the Cabinet
Ministry quashed the recommendations made by the High Court. The
petition for the issuance of writ of mandamus directing the Governor to
act on the recommendations of the High Court was fled to fll up fve
posts of District Judge reserved for direct recruitment from the
practicing members of the bar under Article 233(1) of the Constitution of
India. The High Court of Kerala allowed the petition. The State
approached the Hon'ble Supreme Court challenging the impugned
order. The Cabinet Ministry has declined the recommendations for the
reasons that there was non-representation of the candidates belonging
to the 'Latin-Catholics and Anglo-Indians', Other Backward Classes and
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. On the backdrop of this fact,
the Hon'ble Apex Court held on page 25, second part, that 'there would
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be no difculty, but the High Court has gone a step further'. The
issuance of writ of mandamus by the High Court directing the State
Government i.e. the Governor to act on the recommendation of the High
Court to fll up the 5 vacancies in the posts of District Judge meant for
direct recruitment from the members of the bar under Article 233(1),
was constitutionally impermissible. Although High Court was not
oblivious that the 'advice' of the Council of Ministers to reject the panel
of fourteen names submitted by the High Court could not be subject to
judicial review and that Article 163(1) of the Constitution precludes an
inquiry as to the nature of the advice given by the Council of Ministers to
the Governor, still it has issued a writ in the nature of mandamus upon
the basis that it is called upon to adjudge the illegality and propriety of
the two decisions taken by the State Government through the
instrumentality of the Council of Ministers.
25. Further, relying on the decision of this Court in the case of
State of Rajasthan and Others Vs. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCR 1 , it is
observed that, so long as the question remains whether the Council of
Ministers acted within the limits of their power or exceeded it, it can be
decided by the Court. Apart from saying that the reasons given on the
basis of which the Council of Ministers on February 28, 1985, reviewed
their earlier decision of January 30, 1985, and decided not to appoint
respondents nos.1 and 3-6 as District Judges on the recommendation of
the High Court viz due to non-representation of the candidates
belonging to the 'Latin-Catholics and Anglo-Indians', Other Backward
Classes and Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, were no reasons
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at all, and that the action of the competent authority, the State
Government in rejecting the panel sent by the High Court was totally
arbitrary, illegal and improper. It further observed that 'there was an
overt attempt on the part of the State Government to appoint persons
from outside the panel' which was constitutionally impermissible, and
relied on the proposition laid down in Padfed's case that 'if the Minister
gave no reasons, the Court might infer that he had no good reasons to
give'. It accordingly held that the action of the State Government had no
rational nexus to the object sough to be achieved i.e. implementation of
the scheme of communal reservation laid down in rr.14 to 17 of the
Kerala State and Subordinate Services Rules made applicable by Note
beneath r.2(b) of the Kerala State Higher Judicial Services Rules.
26. The Hon'ble Apex Court accordingly set aside the order of
the High Court of Kerala. The Hon'ble Apex Court, lastly, by writ in the
nature of mandamus, directed the State Government to communicate its
view to the High Court to elicit its opinion within six weeks and, if
necessary, make a fresh effort to fnd suitable candidates from the
communities or groups of communities passed over before taking a fnal
decision in the matter. In consequence, the State Government's
decision not to make appointments from the panel forwarded by the
High Court and to re-notify the vacancies, was quashed.
27. The learned Counsel Shri Patil then relied on the case of
Dr. H. Mukherjee Vs. Union of India, 1994 AIR 495 , again contending
that the recommendations of any committee are not binding in any
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nature to the Government.
28. Examining the Notaries Act and Rules, it appears that the
rules are amendment from time to time. Rule 7-A of rules 1956, is
inserted in 2009, whereby the interview board was constituted. Sub-rule
2 of Rule7-A was substituted by GSR 700(E) dated 24.09.2009 (w.e.f.
24.09.2009). The said rule reads thus:
"7A.Constitution of the Interview Board.- (2) For the said purpose, one or more Interview Boards shall be constituted by the appropriate Government from amongst its ofcers dealing with legal matters, and the Chairperson of every Interview Board shall be an ofcer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or Law Ofcer of that Government.G" [Provided that the appropriate Government may dispense with the condition of holding of interviews for which reasons are to be recorded in writing,G (this proviso clause is inserted by G.S.R. 429 (E) dated 18.04.2016 (w.e.f. 19.04.2016.)
29. Before substitution of rule 7-A(2) by G.S.R. 700 (E) dated
24.09.2009, (w.e.f. 01.03.2009) stood as under:
"(2)"For the said purpose, a three members Interview Board shall be constituted by the appropriate Government from amongst its ofcer dealing with legal matters. The Chairperson of the Interview Board shall not be an ofcer below the rank of Joint Secretary of that Government."
30. Though Rule 7-A was inserted in 2009, the practice routing
the application through the District Judge under rule 4 (1) remained
intact till 06.11.2019 for the applicants, who are practicing lawyers.
Before the substitution of rule 7 (1) in 2009, (w.e.f.1.3.2009), stood as
under:
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"7 (1) the competent authority shall, after holding such inquiry as he thinks ft and after giving applicant an opportunity of making his representations against the objections, if any, received withing the time fxed under sub rule (2) of rule 6, make a report to the appropriate government recommending either that the applicatuon may be allowed for the whole whole or any part of the area to which the application relates or that it may be rejected".
28. Rule 6 was also substituted in 2009 (w.e.f. 1.3.2009). Under substituted rule 6, the competent authority was authorited to reject the application summarily, if the application is not complete in all respects or the applicant does not possess the qualifcations specifed in Rule 3 and also had the discretion to inquire as to the appointment of the applicant as a notary for the purpose of practice.
31. Rule 4 (1) is lastly amended by GSR 821(E) dated
05.11.2019 (w.e.f. 06.11.2019), which reads thus:
"4. Application for appointment as a notary.-[(1) A person may make an application for appointment as a notary (hereinafter called "the applicant"), online in Form I or Form II as applicable, addressed to such ofcer or authority (hereinafter referred to as the "competent authority") of the appropriate Government as that Government may, by notifcation in the Ofcial Gatette, designate in this behalfG (2) The memorial shall be drawn by a person referred to in clause (a) of rule 3 in accordance with Form I and by a person referred to in clauses (b) and (c) of the said rule in accordance with Form II."
32. Reading the substitution made in the relevant rules as
discussed above, rule 6(1) was substituted, and rule 7-A was inserted
on 24.02.2009, rule 4(1) remained intact till the substitution of 2019.
The case before us is in relation to the advertisement by the State of
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Maharashtra dated 18.05.2016 and, therefore, covered under R.4(1) as
it stood prior to 06.11.2019.
33. In the light of the insertion and substitution of rules as
discussed above, it should be examined who was the competent
authority and whether the District Judge was to recommend the names
of applicants (practicing law) to the appropriate Government. Rule 4(1)
of Rules 1956 provides that the appropriate Government may designate
the competent authority, by notifcation in the Ofcial Gazette. It is in the
domain of the Government to designate the competent authority. On
appointing such person as a competent authority, he must discharge the
functions contemplated in rules 6 and 7. However, by substitution of
2009 in rule 7 (1) of rules 1956,the competent authority is empowered to
recommend that the applicant may be allowed to appear before the
Interview Board.
34. The paper book page no. 13 reveals that the Learned
Principal District Judge Latur had forwarded the application of the
petitioner to the Competent Authority, Ministry of Law and Justice,
Department of Legal Affairs ( Notary Cell), Branch, 5 th foor, Mantralaya
Mumbai. The circular dated 18th, May 2016, an advertisement,
mentions that the applications were invited through the competent
authority. It clears that in 2016, the learned Principal District Judge
Latur was not designated as a competent authority. He had to route the
applications to the competent authority. Hence we hold that question of
recommendation by the learned Principal District Judge Latur does not
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arise. We also discard the argument of the petitioner that the
recommendation of competent authority is binding on the Government
for the other reason that since 2009, the competent authority has a
limited role of examining the applications and recommending that the
applicant may be allowed to appear before the Interview Board.
35. In 2016, rule 4(1) was clear that the applications from the
legal practitioners categories shall be routed through the District Judge,
or the Court or Tribunal where the applicant practices law. The applicant
has routed his application through the learned Principal District Judge,
Latur. It is not in dispute that respondent no.3 had not routed his
application through the learned Principal District Judge Latur. In the
above backdrop, the petitioner argues that the application of respondent
no. 3, ought to have been rejected by the competent authority, and the
Interview Board should not have recommended him to the Government.
36. It is not in dispute that the competent authority had received
ten applications in all. All the candidates were invited for interview on
24.11 2017. All of them participated in the interviews. The minutes of
the said interviews are placed on page number 57 of the paper book. It
is mentioned therein that 10 applications were scrutinized by the
Scrutiny Committee constituted for the purpose. Instead of examining
the applications and holding inquiry as prescribed under rules 6 and 7 of
Rules 1956, an unprecedented Scrutiny Committee was constituted by
the competent authority. There is nothing placed on record by the
Government to show that the Scrutiny Committee was constituted under
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a specifc provision. It also does not refect that the competent authority
had recommended the names of eligible candidates suitable for the
interviews. It appears that a foreign procedure is followed against the
rules prescribed by the Government.
37. It further reveals that the Legal Adviser-cum-Joint
Secretary was also a member of Interview Board and Competent
Authority. On perusal of the rules, particularly rules 6 and 7, it appears
that the role of the Competent Authority is to examine the applications
and recommend the candidates to be allowed to appear before the
Interview Board. Considering the rules mentioned above and the
distinct and independent duties ,functions, and, roles of the competent
authority and Chairperson of the Interview Board, we are of the view that
the Competent Authority shall not be part of the Interview Board.
Besides, the interview was taken without disclosing it in the
advertisement, the various heads and the manner of allocation of marks.
Abruptly the Interview Board conducted the interviews and determined
10 marks for General Awareness, 05 marks for Experience of Practice,
and 10 marks to Knowledge of Law and gave 2 marks to the candidates
having experience of 7-10 years, 3, marks to experience of 10 to 20
years and 4 marks to the experience above 20 years. These marks were
added to the marks earned in interviews. Such an interview was a
surprise to the candidates. In this regard, a statement is made by the
Solicitor-cum Deputy Secretary in his additional afdavit in paragraph
no. (vi) that each member of the Interview Board allots marks out of 25
and thus the consolidated marks given by all the three members of the
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panel are out of 75 marks. This is done without disclosing such
procedure in the advertisement. The marks determined for experience
were also not disclosed in the advertisement. The minimum benchmark
was also not disclosed in the advertisement. The Interview Board does
all this exercise without disclosing or making it public in the
advertisement.
38. Rule 8 is about the appointment of notaries. It provides that
on recommendations of the Interview Board, the appropriate
Government shall consider the recommendations and shall, (a) allow
the application in respect of the whole area to which it relates: or (b)
allow the application in respect of any part of the area to which it relates;
or (c) reject the application, and shall also make such orders as the
Government thinks ft regarding the persons by whom the whole or any
part of the cost of the application including the cost of hearing, if any,
shall be borne.
39. The question that the recommendations of either the
competent authority or the Interview Board is mandatory or directory, is
hotly debated by the contesting parties. We have already answered the
role of competent authority above. So far as the word "shall" used in
rule 8 of the Rules 1956 is concerned, it is to answer whether the
recommendations made by the Interview Board are mandatory to the
Government. In the case of Sainik Motors v State of Rajasthan AIR
1961 SC 1480, the Hon'ble Apex Court laid down the law that "The word
'shall' is ordinarily mandatory but it is sometimes not so interpreted if the
23 wp-3347-2020 judg
context or the intention otherwise demands." In State of U.P and Ors v
Babu Ram Upadhyay (1961) 2 SCR 679, the Hon'ble Apex court laid
down the law, that " When a Statute uses the word "shall", prima facie, it
is mandatory, but the Court may ascertain the real intention of the
legislature by carefully ascertaining the whole scope of the statute. For
ascertaining the real intention of the Legislature the Court may consider,
inter alia the nature and statute, and the consequences which would
follow from construing it the one way or the other, the impact of other
provisions whereby the necessity of complying with the provisions in
question is avoided, the circumstances, contingency of the non-
compliance with the provisions, the fact the non-compliance with the
provisions is or is not visited by some penalty, the serious or trivial
consequences that fow therefrom, and, above all, whether the object of
the legislation will be defeated".
40. So far as the process of the appointment on any public
service post based on the recommendations of selection committee or
board is concerned, the Hon'ble Apex Court in R.S. Mittal v Union of
India 1995 supp (2) 230 held that "though there is no vested right to be
appointed to the post for which a candidate has been selected but the
appointing authority cannot ignore the panel or decline to make the
appointment and when a person has been selected then ordinarily there
is no justifcation to ignore him for appointment unless there is a
justifable reason to decline to appoint a person who is on the selection
panel."
24 wp-3347-2020 judg
41. To interpret whether the word 'shall' found in rule 8, is
mandatory or directory, in view of the law laid down by the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Sainik Motors and Babu Ram Upadhaya ( supra), the context in
which it is used and the intention of the notaries act, is to be seen. The
preamble of the Notaries Act, 1952, is " An Act to regulate the
profession of notaries." The object of its bill was to empower the Central
and State Government to appoint notaries, not only for the limited
purposes of the Negotiable Instruments Act, but generally for all
recognized notarial purposes, and to regulate the profession of notaries.
42. Section 3 of the said Act empowers the Central or State
Government to appoint the notaries. The appropriate Government 'may'
appoint the notaries qualifed as per rule 3 of the Rules 1956. The rules
1956 are made under the powers of the Central Government under
section 15 of the Act. Rule 7 of the Rules 1956, refects that the
appointment of the notaries is made having regard to commercial
importance of the area. The knowledge and experience of commercial
law is another factor to be considered by the competent authority while
making the recommendations to the Government. Rule 8 further
provides that the notaries may be appointed in respect of the whole area
or any part of the area to which the application relates. The commercial
activities in a particular area and the need of the notaries is, as appears
from Rules 1956 and the Act, a primary factor.
43. Rule 13 empowers the appropriate Government to make an
inquiry against the notaries into his misconduct. In an inquiry, if the acts
25 wp-3347-2020 judg
and omissions complained of against the notaries are proved, the
Government may cancel his certifcate of practice and perpetually debar
him from practicing notary, or suspend his certifcate of practice, or warn
him. These rules are explicit that the Notaries are under the control of
the appropriate Government.
44. Section 5 of the Act provides that the name of the notary
shall be entered in the certifcate authorizing him to practice is for fve
years and after every fve years it shall be renewed, on payment of fees.
Section 9 bars the practice without the certifcate. Section 12 provides
for falsely representing to be a notary and if the notary does any act in
contravention of section 9, it is cognizable offence. The transaction of
business by a notary is governed under rule 11.
45. Reading the above provisions and rules, it is in no manner
of doubt, the appointment of notary is not a mere formality. It is a
service for the public to be performed with good character, integrity,
ability, and competence. The person desirous to be appointed as notary
has to go to through two tests. Firstly, by satisfying his application is
complete in all respect. He must be a resident of the area for which he
applied. He must be qualifed as prescribed in rule 3. His previous
application shall not be rejected six months before the application. He
has to face objection if any raised on his appointment. Secondly, he
must possess the knowledge and experience of commercial laws. He
must be recommended by competent authority to appear before
Interview Board, and, then Interview Board shall further recommend his
26 wp-3347-2020 judg
name to the appropriate Government to register him the Notary
Register.
46. Reading the provisions of the Act and Rules made
thereunder, we have no hesitation in holding that the appropriate Govt
has the power to examine the recommendations made by the Interview
Board. If it fnds a justifable reason, it may reject it. Further, having
regard to the object of the Act and the purpose of the appointment of a
person which is need-based, we are of the view that the word 'shall'
used in rule 8 of the rules 1958 in directory.
47. The bone of contention of the petitioner is that, in utter
violation of the prescribed rules, the State Government appointed the
candidate who has not routed the application through the District Judge
and secured less mark than him in the interview before Interview Board.
Hence the appointment process adopted by the State Government
violates the article 14 of the constitution of India.
48. It is an admitted fact that the applicant and one Keshav
Narayan Kardile have routed the application through the learned
Principal District Judge, Latur. We have already answered that such
practice of routing the applications through the District Judge was
prevailing in the year 2016. The consolidated mark sheet placed at page
no. 58 of the paper book proves that the respondent no. 3, has secured
less marks than the applicant. The minutes of the interview held on
24.11.2017 make it clear that the Interview Board recommended the
name of the candidates as per their merit based on the marks secured
27 wp-3347-2020 judg
in the interview. The consolidated mark sheet reveals that 36 marks
were the highest score secured by Trimbak Antaram Rajwansh.
However, his application was not routed through the District Judge. The
minutes of the Interview board do not mention the name of the person
recommended, but it indicates that the person who secured the highest
marks was recommended.
49. The petitioner fervently argued that the Government did not
even show courtesy to inform him the order passed under sub-rule 1 of
rule 8. He had to resort to the Right to Information Act. It is a fact that
the appropriate Government, though duty-bound under sub-rule 2 of rule
8, to inform the applicant every order passed under sub-rule 1 of rule 8
has not been informed to the applicant. The petitioner had to complain
to the Government about the illegal appointment of a notary. Then the
Government by, letter dated 31.07.2019, informed him that he may
prefer a review application as contemplated under sub-rule 3 of rule 8.
Then he preferred the same, and the impugned order is passed. The
review application is rejected on the sole ground that it is not mandatory
to route the applications through the District Judge only. No reasons are
assigned on his grievance why the order passed in sub-rule 1 of rule 8
as mandated under sub-rule 3, is not communicated to him. It is also not
justifed why the person who secured less mark is appointed.
50. The Rules are hand-maid to the provisions under such Act.
They assist the law. They are in place to make the parent act work
effectively, avoid confusion and guide the authority to arrive at a proper
28 wp-3347-2020 judg
decision. Hence, where the judgment/decision has to be taken under
the rules prescribed, no authority or, the Government can travel beyond
such rules. Where the rules are framed, they shall be adhered to. Rules
1956 laid the comprehensive procedure for appointing the notary.
Therefore, the appropriate Government cannot deviate from the
procedure laid down in the said rules.
51. In the case at hand, respondents nos.1 and 2 have merely
explained that while appointing the notary they have followed rules 7-A
and 8. However, no reasons were assigned as to why the candidate
who has secured the highest marks, is not considered or what was the
special ground to appoint respondent no.3 who secured second lowest
marks, even less marks than the petitioner. In the absence of any
justifable reason, we fnd that the Government arbitrarily appointed
respondent no.3 in contravention of the established rules and
procedure. The Government has exercised its powers arbitrarily. The
doctrine of fair and impartial decision is also not followed by the
Government.
52. In view of the above, we hold that the State Government
has not strictly followed the Notaries Rules 1956 while appointing the
notary. It has deviated from the mandatory rules as applicable upto
05.11.2019. The appointment of respondent no.3 is without justifable
reason while deviating from the recommendations made by Interview
Board. The Government failed in discharging its legal obligation to
inform the orders passed on the recommendations made by the
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Interview Board.
53. For the above reasons, we partly allow the petition and set
aside the impugned order dated 14 th July, 2020 and the appointment of
respondent no. 3, as a notary for Chakur District Latur.
54. Since, we have arrived at a conclusion that it was
imperative for the applicants to fle their applications through the District
Judge, only 2 applications are liable to be reconsidered. Therefore, we
direct respondent nos. 1 and 2 to reconsider the above two applications
on the basis of Notaries Rules in existence in the year 2016.
55. The respondent nos. 1 and 2 shall take its decision on the
material available with it by strictly following the Notaries Rules, 1956
within three months from today by giving the applicant a hearing, under
a written notice, and inform it's decision as prescribed in sub-rule 3 of
rule 8 of the Notaries Rules, 1958.
56. The respondent no.1 is directed to remove the name of
respondent no.3 Purushottam Vaijnath Shete from a register of notaries,
maintained under Section 4 of the Notaries Act and cancel his certifcate
of practice as Notary forthwith, after the decision is taken by respondent
nos.1 and 2 as directed above.
57. Rule is made partly absolute in the above terms.
(S.G. MEHARE. J) (RAVINDRA V. GHUGE, J) Mujaheed//
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