Citation : 2022 Latest Caselaw 9882 Kant
Judgement Date : 29 June, 2022
1
IN THE HIGH COURT OF KARNATAKA, BENGALURU
DATED THIS THE 29TH DAY OF JUNE, 2022
BEFORE
THE HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE S.R.KRISHNA KUMAR
R.F.A.NO.1152 OF 2004(DEC)
BETWEEN
SRI. M.H. GANGAPPA
S/O HONNAGANGAIAH
SINCE DECEASED BY HIS LRS
A) SMT. LAKSHMAMMA
W/O LATE. M.H. GANGAPPA
SINCE DECEASED BY LRS APPELLANTS 1(B) TO (G)
B) SRI. G. MAHADEVAIAH
S/O LATE. M.H. GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 59 YEARS.
C) SRI. G. SHIVASHANKARAIAH
S/O LATE M.H. GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 44 YEARS.
D) SRI. G. VISHWANATH
S/O LATE M.H. GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 49 YEARS.
E) SMT. G. HONNAMMA
D/O LATE. M.H.GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 61 YEARS.
F) SMT. G. PREMA
D/O LATE M.H. GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 55 YEARS.
G) SMT. VASANTHAKUMARI
D/O LATE M.H. GANGAPPA
AGED ABOUT 45 YEARS.
ALL ARE RESIDING AT
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MALLARABANUVADI VILLAGE
NELAMANGALA TALUK
BENGALURU DISTRICT - 562 123.
...APPELLANTS
[BY SRI. Y.K. NRAYANASHARMA, ADVOCATE FOR APPELLANT(b)
AND (d); V/O DATED V/O/DT: 28.02.2019 (B-G) ARE TREATED AS LRS
APPELLANT (a); SRI. K.R. RAMESH, ADVOCATE FOR APPELLANT(c)]
AND
SRI. M.H.HONNASHAMAIAH
S/O HONNAGANGAIAH
AGED ABOUT 75 YEARS
R/AT MALLARABANUVADI
NELAMANGALA TALUK
BENGALURU DISTRICT - 562 123.
...RESPONDENT
(BY SRI. V. RAMESH BABU, ADVOCATE)
THIS APPEAL IS FILED UNDER SECTION 96 R/W ORDER 41 R
1 CPC AGAINST THE JUDGEMENT AND DECREE DATED: 28.08.2004
PASSED IN O.S.NO. 255/1992, ON THE FILE OF THE 1ST ADDL. CIVIL
JUDGE (SR.DN) BENGALURU RURAL DISTRICT, BENGALURU
DISMISSING THE SUIT FOR DECLARATION, POSSESSION,
MANDATORY INJUNCTION, PERMANENT INJUNCTION AND FOR
MESNE PROFITS.
THIS APPEAL COMING ON FOR FURTHER HEARING , THIS
DAY, THE COURT DELIVERED THE FOLLOWING:
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JUDGMENT
This appeal by the plaintiffs in O.S.No.255/1992 is
directed against the impugned judgment and decree dated
28.08.2004 passed by the I Addl. Senior Civil Judge,
Bangalore Rural District, Bangalore, whereby the said suit for
declaration, possession, mandatory injunction and other reliefs
in respect of the suit schedule immovable property was
dismissed by the trial Court.
2. Heard learned counsel for the appellants and
learned counsel for the respondent and perused the material
on record.
3. A perusal of the material on record including the
impugned judgment and decree will indicate that the appellant
herein instituted the aforesaid suit in respect of two items of
plaint schedule immovable properties viz., land bearing
Sy.No.125/1B measuring 1 acre 2 guntas described as item
No.1 and Sy.No.4/1 measuring 20 guntas described as item
No.2, both situated at Mallahara Banawadi Village,
Nelamangala Taluk, Bangalore District. The said suit was
contested by the respondent / defendant who not only
disputed the title and possession of the plaintiff over the suit
schedule properties but also, the location and identity of the
properties as alleged by the plaintiff. The trial Court framed
the following issues:
" 1. Whether the plaintiff proves that plaintiff is the absolute owner of Item No.2 of suit schedule properties in furtherance of the settlement deed dated: 06.05.1973?
Or Alternatively Whether the defendant proves that he has acquired title and possession in respect of 0.20.0 in Sy.No. 4/1 by settlement deed and by sale deed executed by his father, as averred in para - 2 of the written statement?
2. Whether the plaintiff proves that he was in possession of Item No.2 of the plaint properties?
3. Whether the plaintiff proves that the defendant has encroached 0-20-0 in S.No. 4/1
with boundaries morefully described at Item No.2 of plaint schedule?
4. Whether plaintiff proves that plaintiff and purchased Item No.1 of plaint schedule properties as per the registered sale deed executed on 6-9-51 by Veeraiah of Goundanapalaya?
5. Whether defendant proves that S.No.125/1 sold by father of Veeraiah was Sold with an understanding to reconvey?
6. Whether defendant proves that S.No. 125/1 sold by Veeraiah was repurchased by father in the name of plaintiff?
7. Whether defendant proves that S.No. 125/1 measuring 4.30-0 was retained by father without including it in the settlement deed dated: 6.5.73 and father was the owner of the entire extent of 4.30.0?
8. Whether defendant proves that 1.02 reconveyed from Veeraiah in the name of plaintiff is a part and parcel of the said 4.30.0 retained by father?
9. Whether defendant proves that on account of sale in favour of Veeraiah S.No. 125/1 was renumbered as 125/1a and 125/1b?
10. Whether defendant proves that his father had sold S.No. 125/1A and 125/B totally measuring 4.30.0 to him in 1979?.
11. Whether defendant proves that he has acquired title in respect of both suit schedule properties by adverse possession?
12. Whether plaintiff proves that defendant has encroached and illegally occupied item No.1 of plaint property on 21.08.1991?
13. Whether plaintiff proves that suit is within time?
14. Whether plaintiff proves that the valuation of suit properties made and Court fee paid is correct?
15. Whether plaintiff proves that he is entitle for declaration and possession of suit properties?
16. Whether plaintiff proves that he is entitle for the relief of mandatory injunction?
17. Whether plaintiff proves that he is entitle for mesne profits?
18. To What relief parties are entitled?"
4. The original plaintiff having expired during the
pendency of the suit, his wife and children - the appellants
herein continued to prosecute the suit and on their behalf, his
son G. Shivashankaraiah was examined as PW-1 and Exs.P1
to P43 were marked. The defendant - respondent examined
himself as DW1 and two witnesses DW2 and DW3 and
Exs.D1 to D48 were marked on his behalf. The trial court
heard both sides and proceeded to pass the impugned
judgment and decree dismissing the suit, aggrieved by which,
the appellants are before this Court by way of the present
appeal.
5. After hearing the learned counsel for the
appellants and the learned counsel for the respondent, this
Court passed the following order on 28.01.2020:-
"Actually the arguments in this case are over. Sri Y.K.N.Sharma, learned counsel for the
appellants, while arguing submitted one point that in the trial court an application for appointing a Commissioner was made by the appellants. The trial court dismissed the said application. The appellants have sought for possession of two items of the property as described in items 1 and 2 of the plaint schedule. The clear pleading of the plaintiff is that he was allotted 4 acres 10 guntas of land in Sy. No. 4/1 of Mallarabanawadi Village in a settlement that took place in the year 1973. The respondent- defendant was allotted 10 guntas of land, but the defendant has encroached upon 20 guntas of plaintiff's land. The defendant has contended that he is in possession of 10 guntas of land that was allotted to him besides another 10 guntas that was sold to him by his father and he denies the encroachment. But, documents do not establish that 10 guntas was sold by the father to the defendant. The sale deed that the defendant relies upon is unregistered. There is ambiguity in the evidence. Therefore, to find out whether there is encroachment or not, the appellants sought for appointment of Commissioner. But, the trial court dismissed the application and now in the appeal the Commissioner can be appointed to find out the extent of encroachment. He therefore submitted that the Commissioner may be appointed now.
2. Sri Ramesh Babu, learned counsel for the respondent, argued that the trial court has given cogent reasons for dismissing the application. Plaintiff has just stated that there is encroachment of 20 guntas of land belonging to him, but the plaint does not disclose as to on which side of the plaintiff's site there is encroachment. There is no ambiguity in the evidence. There is no need to appoint a Commissioner.
3. On perusal of I.A.No.14 filed by the plaintiff in the trial court, it is found that the plaintiff sought for appointment of Commissioner to find out the encroachment and also for identification of the suit properties. I have perused the order dated 21.6.2004 passed by the trial court on this application. The main reason given by the trial court is that the plaintiff has specifically and distinctively given the extent of land and its boundaries of the encroached land. By relying upon a judgment of this court report in ILR 2002 (3) KAR 3599, the trial court dismissed the application. The trial court extracted the principle laid down in the said decision. It is observed that if the party himself has stated in his pleading about the extent of land that had been encroached upon by the other party, there is no need to have a Commissioner appointed.
4. While deciding the application of this nature, the court has to take into consideration the facts and circumstances of the given case before it and decide whether Commissioner needs to be appointed or not. In this case, it is no doubt true that the plaintiff has given the boundaries and the extent of the land said to have been encroached upon by the defendant. The plaintiff has given evidence with regard to it but, the defendant has contended that in addition to 10 guntas of land given to him in the settlement, his father sold him another 10 guntas of land. The sale deed produced by him in this regard is unregistered. The trial court has observed this.
5. The plaintiff has also produced another document as per Ex.P43 which shows that the plaintiff's father Honnagangaiah gifted 23 acres of land in Sy. No. 4/1 to his sister Honnamma. Column No.9 of the RTC in respect of Sy. No. 4/1 indicates that the defendant is in possession of only 10 guntas. Therefore, ambiguity between the oral evidence and documentary evidence can be made out. To arrive at a just decision whether there is real encroachment or not, I am of the opinion that the Commissioner needs to be appointed now. There is no bar for appointing a Commissioner in the appeal though there is no application for the said purpose
by any of the parties. It is a matter to be mentioned here that the application filed by the appellant in the trial court was not considered and the order passed on said application can be taken as a ground in the appeal according to Order 43 Rule 1A of CPC. Therefore, Commissioner is appointed for giving report in regard to the following : -
(i) Whether the plaintiff's land and the defendant's land in Sy.No.4/1 of Mallarabanawadi are situate adjacent to each other?
(ii) Is there any encroachment on the plaintiff's land in the said Sy. No., if so to what extent and in which side of the plaintiff's property?
The advocates for the parties suggest that the Assistant Director of Land Records, Nelamangala Taluk be appointed as Commissioner. Therefore the said officer is appointed as Commissioner. His initial fee is fixed at Rs.5,000/-. The same shall be deposited in the Registry within a week from today. The parties are also at liberty to file memo of instructions to be given to the Commissioner. The Commissioner shall carry out the commission work with advance notice to the parties and their advocates. The Commissioner shall give report with regard to the above two points and also memo of instructions of the parties in case
they are filed. Commissioner shall give report within 30 days from the date of issue of warrant. Issue Commissioner warrant. Process fee to be paid by the appellants".
6. In pursuance of the same, the Court
Commissioner appointed by this Court has conducted the
survey and submitted a report. However, on 30.09.2021, this
Court noticed that the jurisdictional ADLR, who was appointed
as the Court Commissioner had sub-delegated the
Commission work to a Taluk Surveyor, which was
impermissible in law and accordingly, directed the ADLR
himself to conduct a fresh survey and submit a report. The
said order dated 30.09.2021 reads as under:
" On 28.1.2020, an order was passed appointing the Assistant Director of Land Records (for short 'ADLR') of Nelamangala Taluk to conduct survey. Survey report has been submitted, but it shows that survey was not conducted by ADLR. Instead he delegated his power to Taluk surveyor for conducting survey. Learned counsel for the appellants submits that respondent did not take any objection at the time of conducting survey on 2.3.2020 for the first time by the Taluk surveyor and therefore the
respondent cannot take an objection now. Respondent's counsel submits that though the respondent did not take objection on 2.3.2020, survey was not completed on 2.3.2020. The next date of survey was fixed on 21.3.2020. The ADLR, Nelamanagala Taluk himself addressed a letter to this court seeking extension of time to complete the survey work and therefore the respondent was under the impression that the ADLR would himself conduct the survey on 21.3.2020. But the Taluk surveyor completed the survey. In this view, he submits that the report of the Commissioner cannot be accepted. ADLR could not have delegated his power to the Taluk surveyor. Learned counsel for the respondent relies upon the judgment of this court in the case of Shamanna Setty Vs. B.L.Channegowda (ILR 2006 KAR 3588).
I have perused the survey report. The order dated 28.1.2020 is very clear and the ADLR was directed to conduct survey. In this view as has been held by this court in Shamanna Setty's case, there cannot be delegation of authority by the Commissioner to his sub-ordinate. Therefore the survey report submitted by the Taluk Surveyor cannot be accepted and it is rejected.
The counsel for the appellant now submits that the Commissioner may be directed to conduct survey once again. Therefore, the ADLR, Nelamangala is
hereby directed to conduct survey himself in accordance with order dated 28.1.2020 of this court. The ADLR shall not delegate his power to his sub- ordinate. Since this appeal is considerably old, the ADLR shall complete the survey within a period of one month from the date of receipt of this order. The parties are at liberty to file fresh memo of instructions well in advance to enable the ADLR to conduct survey. Issue commissioner warrant. The appellants shall pay the process fee for issuing commissioner warrant.
7. In pursuance of the same, the ADLR - Court
Commissioner has submitted his report and the same was
received on record by this Court vide order dated 07.03.2022
and the matter was listed for hearing. It is relevant to state
that the respondent has filed his objections on 28.03.2022 to
the report of the Court Commissioner.
8. During the pendency of the appeal, the appellants
have filed an application I.A.1/2017 under Order 41 Rule 27
CPC for permission to adduce additional evidence by
producing 5 documents. The respondent has filed objections
to the said application.
9. The following points arise for consideration in the
present appeal:-
(i) Whether the appellants have made out sufficient
grounds to seek production of additional documents as sought
for in I.A.1/2017?
(ii) Whether the impugned judgment and decree passed
by the trial court warrants interference in the present appeal?
Re-Point No.1:-
10. A perusal of the impugned judgment and decree
will indicate that the trial court took into account the rival
contentions and claims put forth by both sides as regards their
alleged right, title, interest and possession over the suit
schedule properties as well as their identity and location and
framed as many as 18 issues, pursuant to which, both sides
adduced oral and documentary evidence. The trial court
answered the issues against the appellants - plaintiffs and
came to the conclusion that they have failed to establish their
title and possession as well as the identity and location of the
suit schedule properties. By way of additional evidence, the
appellants - plaintiffs seek to produce additional documents to
substantiate their claim of title, possession as well as identity
and location over the suit schedule properties. As stated
supra, the ADLR - court commissioner was appointed by this
Court to conduct survey and local inspection of the suit
schedule properties.
10.1 Further, the respondent has filed objections to
I.A.1/2017 disputing and denying the said documents as well
as to the report submitted by the court commissioner. In view
of various contentious issues that arise for consideration
between the parties and in the light of the additional
documents sought to be produced by the appellants -
plaintiffs which are seriously disputed by the respondent, I am
of the view that the additional documents which purported to
relate to the suit schedule properties are relevant and material
for the purpose of adjudication of the issues in controversy
involved in the present appeal. So also, a perusal of the
Affidavit in support of I.A.1/2017 will clearly indicate that valid
and sufficient grounds have been made out by the appellants
to seek permission of this Court to produce additional
evidence which are said to be relevant and material for the
purpose of disposal of the present appeal. Under these
circumstances, I am of the considered opinion that without
prejudice to the rights and contentions of the parties and
without expressing any opinion as regards the legality, validity
admissibility, proof etc., of the said documents, the same
deserves to be received on record by allowing the application
I.A.1/2017.
Point No.1 is answered accordingly.
Re-Point No.2:-
11. After having allowed I.A.1/2017 and receiving /
accepting the additional evidence produced by the appellants-
plaintiffs on record, the next question that arises for
consideration is the procedure to be followed by this Court for
the purpose of disposal of the present appeal.
11.1 In this context, it is relevant to state that since the
respondent has seriously disputed and denied the additional
documents, it would be necessary to grant both parties an
opportunity to adduce additional oral and documentary
evidence in support of their respective claims including the
said additional documents.
11.2 Further, the respondent has also filed his
objections to the report of the court commissioner - ADLR
appointed by this Court; in this regard, learned counsel for the
respondent submits that the respondent intends to summon
the said court commissioner for cross-examination. Under
these circumstances, in view of Order 26 Rule 10(2) CPC, it is
necessary that an opportunity is provided to the respondent to
summon the court commissioner for cross-examination.
11.3 The aforesaid facts and circumstances are
sufficient to indicate that in the light of the additional evidence
being permitted by this Court and the report of the court
commissioner appointed by this Court being accepted by the
appellants and opposed by the respondent, it would be just
and appropriate to set aside the impugned judgment and
decree and remit the matter back to the trial court for
reconsideration afresh in accordance with law. This Court is
conscious of the fact that the present appeal is of the year
2004 arising out of a suit filed in 1992 and consequently, a
direction to the trial court to dispose of the suit pursuant to
remand within a stipulated timeframe would serve the ends of
justice.
Point No.2 is answered accordingly.
12. In the result, I pass the following:-
ORDER
(i) The appeal is hereby allowed.
(ii) The impugned judgment and decree dated
28.08.2004 passed in O.S.No.255/1992 by the I Additional
Civil Judge (Sr.Dn), Bangalore Rural District, Bangalore, is
hereby set aside.
(iii) I.A.No.1/2017 filed by the appellants under Order 41
Rule 27 CPC is hereby allowed and the documents produced
along with the same are received on record.
(iv) The matter is remitted back to the trial Court for
reconsideration afresh in accordance with law.
(v) Registry to transmit I.A.No.1/2017 along with the
documents to the trial Court forthwith; the Registry is also
directed to transmit all the papers pertaining to the
commission work conducted by the court commissioner
including report, evidence, photographs, sketch, objections
etc., to the trial court forthwith.
(vi) Liberty is reserved in favour of both the parties to
adduce such further oral and documentary evidence in
support of their respective contentions; it is needless to state
that both the parties would be entitled to cross-examine each
other.
(viii) Liberty is reserved in favour of both the parties to
summon the Court Commissioner appointed by this Court and
examine/cross-examine himself with reference to his report,
evidence etc.,
(ix) All rival contentions are kept open and no opinion is
expressed on the same.
(x) The trial court is directed to dispose of the suit on
merits as expeditiously as possible and at any rate, within a
period of six months from 18.07.2022, on which date, both
parties undertake to appear before the trial court without
awaiting further notice from the trial court.
(xi) Registry is directed to re-transmit the entire Trial
Court Records back to the trial court, forthwith.
Sd/-
JUDGE
Bmc/Srl.
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