Citation : 2021 Latest Caselaw 1552 AP
Judgement Date : 17 March, 2021
THE HON'BLE SRI JUSTICE M.SATYANARAYANA MURTHY
WRIT PETITION NO.15427 OF 2020
ORDER:
This writ petition is filed under Article 226 of the Constitution
of India to declare the proceedings in Rc.No.581/2018/A2 dated
02.12.2018 including the proceedings in Rc.No.581/2018/A2 dated
10.06.2018 issued by the first respondent, the consequential
proceedings No.VS.I(3)/1321/2019 dated 26.08.2020 issued by the
second respondent as illegal, arbitrary and violative of Articles 14, 16
and 21 of the Constitution of India, against the principles of natural
justice, apart from contrary to Rules 20, 21 and 37 of the Andhra
Pradesh Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules,
1991 (for short 'the Rules') and set-aside the same and issue
consequential direction directing the respondents to forthwith
consider and promote the petitioner to the post of Tahsildar in Zone-I
as per his seniority before promoting any juniors to the petitioner
with all consequential benefits.
The facts of the case in brief are that, the petitioner joined in
service on 02.07.1995 and later promoted to the post of Deputy
Tahsildar on 23.05.2005. Later, the second respondent/Chief
Commissioner of Land Administration by proceedings dated
29.04.2020 included the name of this petitioner for the panel year
2014-2015 of Deputy Tahsildars in Srikakulam District and
01.09.2013 as date of promotion to the cadre of Deputy Thasildar to
the petitioner. Subsequently, vide proceedings dated 13.05.2020 the
petitioner was included in the year 2014-2015 in the panel of Deputy MSM,J WP_15427_2020
Tahsildars, but changed the date of promotion as 01.09.2014 from
01.09.2013. As per the approved panel for 2014-2015, in the cadre
of Deputy Tahsildar for Zone-I, the name of the petitioner was placed
at Serial No.7 while including the petitioner in the year 2014-2015
panel of Deputy Tahsildar.
On 18.04.2018, the first respondent/Collector & District
Magistrate, Srikakulam issued a charge memo alleging that the
petitioner committed certain irregularities while performing his
duties while he was working as Deputy Tahsildar, MLS Point
Incharge, Kothuru, framed three charges, issued Charge Memo and
called upon this petitioner to file written statement in terms of Rule
20 of The Andhra Pradesh Civil Services (Classification, Control and
Appeal) Rules, 1991 (hereinafter referred as 'the Rules')
On receipt of charge memo, the petitioner submitted detailed
explanation/written statement twice on 04.05.2018 to the first
respondent, denying charges framed against this petitioner and
demonstrated that he did commit no any illegalities or irregularities.
The fourth respondent issued urgent notice by proceedings
dated 09.07.2018 directing the petitioner to attend the inquiry on
20.06.2019 at 11.00 a.m at Tahsildar's office, Kothuru, referring
proceedings dated 10.06.2018 of the Collector, Srikakulam stating
that the petitioner committed irregularities i.e issuing PDS stock to
the Fair Price Shops without release orders and not updated the
stock register day-to-day basis. Finally, submitted enquiry report by
the second respondent which is now challenged.
MSM,J WP_15427_2020
The main grounds urged by the petitioner before this Court are
as follows:
a) The petitioner is not guilty of any misconduct, despite
submitting an explanation dated 04.05.2018 twice to the
charge memo, the first respondent did not consider the
explanation in proper perspective objectively and appointed the
second respondent as an inquiry officer to conduct enquiry.
Therefore, failure of the first respondent to consider the
explanation objectively is contrary to Rule 20 of the Rules. On
this ground, the very appointment of third respondent/ Special
Chief Secretary, Revenue Department as an enquiry officer is
liable to be set-aside.
b) The second respondent/enquiry officer did conduct no enquiry
in the eye of law strictly adhering to Rule 20 of the Rules and
the report submitted by the second respondent is suffice to
conclude that, no enquiry was held strictly adhering to the
Rules, therefore, the enquiry report is vitiated by illegalities
and irregularities. On this ground alone, final order passed by
the first respondent imposing major penalty of stoppage of two
increments with cumulative effect is illegal and arbitrary.
c) The major contention of this petitioner is that, enquiry was
initiated with a malafide intention to deprive this petitioner for
being considered to the next higher cadre post of Tahsidlar
Grade-I and when his name was included in the panel at Serial
No.7, to deny the promotion, such vexatious charge memo was
issued without any basis and when the intention is malafide, MSM,J WP_15427_2020
the Court can interfere with such findings in the report
submitted by the second respondent and final order passed by
the first respondent imposing major penalty and requested to
set-aside the major penalty while directing the respondents to
consider the petitioner's candidature for being promoted to the
next higher cadre i..e Tahsildar Grade-I for the panel year
2014-2015.
All the respondents filed common counter affidavit, denying
material allegations, while admitting initiation of disciplinary
proceedings, conducting enquiry, affording an opportunity to this
petitioner at every stage strictly adhering to Rule 20 of the Rules. It
is specifically contended that, on an adverse news item was
published in the daily newspapers and after conducting enquiry, as
grave irregularities were committed by this petitioner, the first
respondent/ the Collector & District Magistrate, Srikakulam, after
following due procedure, awarded major penalty i.e. withholding two
annual grade increments vide proceedings dated 02.10.2018.
It is contended that, the petitioner filed statutory appeal to the
second respondent on 21.02.2019 i.e. within the time and the said
appeal was admitted by the second respondent and records were
called for vide Ref.No.VS.I(3)/132/2019 dated 13.06.2019. The
District Collector, Srikakulam has submitted the connected records
vide his letter dated 30.07.2019.
The Inquiry Officer appointed by the District Collector has
issued notice to the petitioner herein for personal enquiry. The
Inquiry report was also furnished to the petitioner herein to offer his MSM,J WP_15427_2020
further explanation in the matter. After examining his further
explanation and record, the Collector, Srikakulam has imposed a
major penalty of stoppage of two annual grade increments by
Collector, Srikakulam vide proceedings dated 02.10.2018. The
appeal was dismissed by the second respondent having found no
procedural infirmity or illegality as final order was imposing major
penalty referred supra was passed.
The respondents denied non-compliance of the direction
issued by this Court in W.P.No.13055 of 2020 dated 20.08.2020 and
while denying malafides attributed to the respondents and the
alleged malafides are without any basis and therefore, the
proceedings were in accordance with law. The respondents explained
the articles of charges, explanation and the findings recorded by the
Inquiry Officer and affirmed by the Appellate Authority in detail in
the counter affidavit. But, this Court is not required to appreciate the
evidence of the authorities, since this Court cannot sit over an
appeal over the orders passed by the second respondent, affirming
the orders passed by the first respondent. At best, this Court is
required to examine the procedural irregularities, both in conducting
enquiry and disposal of appeal. Therefore, those contentions need
not be recorded in the present order. At best, this Court is required
to examine the procedural irregularities pointed out by the learned
counsel for the petitioner and compliance pleaded by the
respondents while deciding the writ petition, exercising power under
Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
MSM,J WP_15427_2020
During hearing, Sri P.V. Krishnaiah, learned counsel for the
petitioner reiterated the contentions urged in the writ petition,
whereas, Sri Aswartha Narayana, learned Government Pleader for
Services-I supported the proceedings issued by the respondents and
placed on record, photocopy copy of entire enquiry file before this
Court for perusal and to find out whether any procedural
irregularities are committed by the Inquiry Officer/fourth respondent
and confirmation of the penalty imposed by the second respondent
and affirmed by the first respondent.
Considering rival contentions, perusing the material available
on record, the sole point that arises for consideration is whether:
"The enquiry conducted against this petitioner is vitiated by any irregularities or illegalities?. Whether the final order imposing major penalty of stoppage of two annual grade increments with cumulative effect and it's confirmation by the second respondent is in accordance with law. If not, liable to be set-aside while directing the first respondent to consider the candidature of this petitioner for promotion to the next higher cadre i.e. Tahsidlar Graade-I for the panel year 2014 - 2015."
P O I N T:
The jurisdiction of this Court to interfere with the enquiry
report is limited while exercising power under Article 226 of the
Constitution of India, since this Court cannot sit over an appeal on
the findings recorded by the Inquiry Officer/fourth respondent and
the penalty imposed by the first respondent, which is confirmed by
the second respondent. At best, this Court shall examine the
procedural irregularities or illegalities if any committed by the
concerned authorities in completion of enquiry. However, while
exercising power under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, if this
Court finds material irregularities which vitiates the entire enquiry, MSM,J WP_15427_2020
the Court can interfere with disciplinary proceedings initiated
against the government servant or if the penalty imposed against the
petitioner is disproportionate to the gravity of the misconduct.
Interference of Court only when the finding is perverse or
based on no evidence. The power of judicial review available to the
High Court as also to this Court under the Constitution takes in its
stride the domestic enquiry as well and it can interfere with the
conclusion reached therein if there was no evidence to support the
findings or the findings recorded were such as could not have been
reached by an ordinary prudent man or the findings were perverse or
made at the dictates of the superior authority. (vide Kuldeep Singh
v. Commissioner of Police and others1).
The first and foremost contention raised by the learned
counsel for the petitioner is that, the very appointment of Inquiry
officer/fourth respondent by the first respondent is illegal and
arbitrary, for the simple reason that, the detailed explanation
submitted by this petitioner was not considered to proceed against
this petitioner by appointing an Inquiry Officer, since it was not
examined objectively.
The disciplinary proceedings deemed to have been initiated
only on service of charge memo on the government servant for non-
compliance of Rule 20(3) of the Rules. Therefore, service of Articles
of Charge calling for written explanation/written submission is the
date of initiation of disciplinary proceedings against this petitioner
i.e. on 18.04.2018. The petitioner allegedly submitted his
explanation/written statement in detail, demonstrating that he is not
1999 (2) SCC 10 MSM,J WP_15427_2020
guilty of any misconduct prima facie and requested to drop further
proceedings against this petitioner. according to the petitioner, the
written statement/explanation submitted by the petitioner was not
considered in proper perspective objectively, thereby, committed a
serious illegality.
According to Rule 20(3) of the Rules, where it is proposed to
hold an inquiry against a Government Servant under Rule 20 and
Rule 21, the Disciplinary Authority or the Controlling Authority who
is not designated as Disciplinary Authority and who is subordinate to
the Appointing Authority can draw up or cause to be drawn up -
(i) The substance of the imputations of misconduct or misbehaviour into definite and distinct articles of charge.
(ii) A statement of the imputations of misconduct or misbehaviour in support of each article of charge, which shall contain
(a) A statement of all relevant facts including any admission or confession made by the Government Servant.
(b) A list of documents by which and a list of witness by whom, the articles of charge are proposed to be sustained.
According to Rule 20(4), the Disciplinary Authority shall deliver
or cause to be delivered to the Government Servant a copy of the
articles of charge, the statement of the imputations of misconduct or
misbehaviour and a list of documents and witnesses by which each
article of charge is proposed to be sustained and copies of the said
documents and statements of the said witnesses and shall require
the Government Servant to appear before the Disciplinary Authority
on such day and at such time not exceeding ten working days and
submit a written statement of his defence and to state whether he
desires to be heard in person.
MSM,J WP_15427_2020
Rule 20(5) (a) On the date fixed for appearance, the
Government Servant shall submit the written statement of his
defence. The Disciplinary Authority shall ask the government servant
whether he is guilty or has any defence to make and if he pleads
guilty to any of the articles of charges, the Disciplinary Authority
shall record the plea, sign the record and obtain the signature of the
Government Servant thereon. The disciplinary authority shall record
findings of guilty in respect of those articles of charge to which the
Government servant pleads guilty. Where the Government servant
admits all the articles of charge, the disciplinary authority shall
record its findings on each article of charge after taking such
evidence as it may think fit and shall act in the manner laid down in
Rule 21.
According to Rule 20(5)(b) Where the Government Servant
appears before the Disciplinary Authority and pleads not guilty to the
charges or refuses or omits to plead, the Disciplinary Authority shall
record the plea and obtain signature of the Government Servant
thereon and may decide to hold the inquiry itself or if it considers
necessary to do so appoint an Inquiring Authority for holding the
inquiry into the charges and also appoint a Government Servant or a
retired Government Servant or a legal practioner as Presenting
Officer to present the case in support of the articles of charge and
adjourn the case to a date not exceeding five days. Sub-clause (c)
says that, on the day so fixed, the disciplinary authority shall serve
copies of the orders appointing the inquiring authority and the
Presenting Officer on the Government servant and inform him that
he may take the assistance of any other Government servant to MSM,J WP_15427_2020
present the case on his behalf, but he may not engage a retired
Government servant or a legal practitioner for the purpose unless the
Presenting Officer appointed by the disciplinary authority is one
such, or, the disciplinary authority, having regard to the
circumstances of the case, so permits.
Provided that no Government servant dealing in his official
capacity with the case of inquiry relating to the person charged or
any officer to whom an appeal may be preferred shall be permitted by
the inquiring authority to appear, on behalf of the person charged
before the inquiring authority.
Provided further that the Government servant may take the
assistance of any other Government servant posted at any other
station, if the inquiring authority having regard to the circumstances
of the case and for reasons to be recorded in writing, so permits.
Rule 20(5) did not lay down any procedure of considering the
explanation of this petitioner in detail, while proposing to order
enquiry.
Rule 20 is so elaborate that a repetition of the whole procedure
is unnecessary here. It is however designed to see that not merely a
reasonable opportunity but a very effective opportunity is to be given
to the civil servant to prove his innocence. The salient features are
that -
(1) the articles of charge with statement of imputations, list of documents and witnesses proposed to be examined have to be communicated to the delinquent officer and he should be asked to submit a written statement of defence and to state whether he desires to be heard in person' MSM,J WP_15427_2020
(2) a presenting officer has to be appointed unless the disciplinary authority itself inquires into the charges; (3) in the enquiry, witnesses shall be examined by the presenting officer and may be cross-examined by the Government servant;
(4) the Government servant can take the assistance of another government servant in service or retired or where the presenting officer appointed is a legal practitioner he can also take the assistance of a legal practitioner; (5) the Government servant can himself also produce witnesses on his behalf and they may be cross-examined by the presenting officer;
(6) the Government servant shall be entitled to inspect the documents on which the Articles of Charges are based and if he applies in writing for the supply of the copies of the statement of witnesses;
(7) after the conclusion of the enquiry, a report shall be prepared with the particulars stated in sub-rule (23) of Rule 20.
Above is in short the procedure prescribed in Rule 20 in order
to afford a reasonable opportunity to the delinquent Government
employee to prove the innocence. The rule however is very elaborate
even to recount all the salient features here, only the important
framework is given.
Reasonable opportunity as contemplated by Rule 20 consists
of various steps:
(1) the framing of charges;
(2) the appointment of a presenting officer; (3) the conduct of enquiry proper by examining witnesses and cross-examining them on both sides;
(4) supply of documents necessary to the delinquent officer to effectively put up his defence;
(5) the report of the enquiry officer MSM,J WP_15427_2020
It is not possible to deal with all these steps which form part of
reasonable opportunity in one spell. An attempt is made to broadly
explain the scope of the expression 'reasonable opportunity' while the
various steps it contains are dealt with in separate chapters.
Sub-Rule (3) of Rule 20 of the Rules does not contemplate
judicial consideration of each and every contention raised by the
petitioner in his written statement. Overall consideration is suffice to
order a regular departmental enquiry, if the appointing authority
concludes prima facie that there is material to proceed against this
petitioner for the misconduct. Therefore, failure of the first
respondent to consider the detailed explanation submitted by the
petitioner objectively is not a ground to vitiate the entire enquiry and
therefore, on this ground, this Court cannot set-aside the enquiry
initiated against this petitioner and final order passed by the first
respondent and affirmed by the second respondent.
The second ground raised by this petitioner is that, enquiry
was in total violation of the procedure prescribed under Rule 20 and
Rule 21 of the Rules. However, the respondents contended that the
enquiry was conducted strictly in accordance with Rule 20 of the
Rules and placed on record the entire enquiry record before this
Court.
Undisputedly, a charge memo was issued calling upon this
petitioner to submit written statement of defence as per Sub-Rule 3
of Rule 20 of the Rules, which is the date of initiation of disciplinary
proceedings. Later, on consideration of explanation of this petitioner,
the first respondent ordered departmental enquiry appointing the MSM,J WP_15427_2020
fourth respondent/enquiry officer by exercising power under
Rule 20(6) of the Rules. Till appointment of enquiry officer, I find no
irregularity or violation of any procedure. But, there are several steps
during conduct of regular departmental enquiry. This Court has to
examine various steps at different stages to be followed by an Inquiry
Officer and if, no enquiry in accordance with Rule 20 is conducted,
this Court can interfere with such enquiry.
The Rule 20 of the Rules, prescribes entirely a new procedure
for conducting an enquiry by the disciplinary authority where it is
proposed to impose a major penalty prescribed under the said Rules.
Some of the salient features of the new rule are given below for
immediate guidance of the disciplinary authority/enquiry authority:
(i)For imposition of a major penalty, an enquiry should be conducted either under the CCA Rules, or the Public Servant (Enquiry Act).
(ii) The disciplinary authority may itself conduct the enquiry or appoint an inquiry authority to conduct the enquiry.
(iii) The disciplinary authority itself can prepare or cause the preparation of the articles of charges, statement of imputations of misconduct or misbehaviour.
(iv)The articles of charges, statement of imputations of misconduct and list of witnesses and documents should be served on the Government servant by the disciplinary authority or at its instance and the Government servant should be required to submit the statement of defence and to state whether he desires to be heard in person.
(v) The disciplinary authority on receipt of statement of defence or where no statement of defence is received within the stipulated time, conduct the enquiry itself or appoint an inquiry authority to do so.
3. It may be noted from the above that as per the old rules, the inquiry officer used to be in the picture right from the start of the disciplinary proceedings, whereas under the new rules he comes into picture only when the disciplinary authority, after considering the statement of defence submitted by the Government servants, decides to appoint an Inquiry Authority for conducting an inquiry.
4. It is brought to the notice of Government that the disciplinary authorities appointing the Inquiry Officers straight away on MSM,J WP_15427_2020
receipt of a complaint against a Government servant without following the procedure prescribed in Rule 20(3),(4) the new A.P. Civil Services (CC & A) Rules, 1991 in the first instance. Such a course of action evidently which is not in accordance with the procedure prescribed under the new rules is liable to be set aside when questioned in a Court of Law. It is, therefore, impressed on the disciplinary authorities that they should invariably follow the procedure prescribed under Rule 20(3),(4) of the CCA Rules, 1991 before they consider the appointment of an inquiry authority. Non-compliance with the prescribed procedure will be viewed seriously.
5. As per the provision of the new CCA Rules articles of charges, etc., will have to be prepared or got prepared by the disciplinary authority. Needless to say that the articles of charge form the basis of enquiry. Therefore utmost care and diligence is required to be taken while drawing up the articles of charges, as any defect or deficiency in the articles of charges will ultimately lead to vitiation of the entire proceedings. The disciplinary authority/inquiry authority should see that the charges are specific without any ambiguity and are fully supported by documentary evidence.
6. All the Departments of Secretariat, Heads of Departments and Collectors are requested to strictly follow the above procedure prescribed in the A.P. Civil Services (CC & A) Rules, 1991. Whenever an inquiring authority is to be appointed for conducting enquiry under the said rules, they are also requested to bring these instructions to the notice of their subordinates for their guidance and compliance.
Here, the respondents substantially complied Sub-Rule 5 of
Rule 20. When the petitioner herein denied the charges by
submitting his written statement of defence, the procedure to be
followed is prescribed under Sub-Rules (8) to (10) of Rule 20. After
receiving the documents mentioned under sub-rule (7) (a), the
Inquiring Authority shall issue a notice in writing to the Presenting
Officer and also to the Government Servant to appear before him on
such day and at such time and place specified by him which shall
not exceed ten days.
Thus, a ten days advance notice shall be issued to the
government servant in the departmental enquiry while serving a MSM,J WP_15427_2020
notice to the Presenting Officer when a regular departmental enquiry
is ordered to impose major penalty. But, in the present case,
summary of the entire file is produced before this Court, I find no
material about compliance of Rule 20(8). Apart from that, Rule 20(9)
prescribed the procedure for appearance of the Delinquent Officer
before the Enquiry Authority.
When a notice was served, as served under sub-rule (8) and on
appearance, the Presenting Officer and Government and Government
Servant shall appear before the Inquiring Authority on the date fixed
under sub-rule (8). If the Government Servant informs the Inquiring
Authority that he wishes to inspect the documents mentioned in
sub-rule (3) for the purpose of preparing his defence, the Inquiring
Authority shall order that he may inspect the documents within five
days and the Presenting Officer shall arrange for the inspection
accordingly. The Inquiring Authority shall call upon the Government
Servant whether he admits the genuineness of any of the documents
copies of which have been furnished to him and if he admits the
genuineness of any document it may be taken as evidence without
any proof by the concerned witness.
The Inquiring Authority shall adjourn the case for inquiry to a
date not exceeding ten days for production of evidence and require
the Presenting Officer to produce the evidence by which he proposes
to prove the articles of charges. Thus, Clause (d) of Sub-Rule (9) of
Rule 20 mandates recording of evidence and requires the Presenting
Officer to produce such evidence which he may proposes to prove the
Articles of Charges framed against the Delinquent Officer or MSM,J WP_15427_2020
Government Servant. But, here, the Inquiring Officer did not comply
Clause (c), so also Clause (d) of Sub-Rule (9) of Rule 20.
According to Sub-Rule (10) of Rule 20, on the dates fixed for
recording the evidence, the oral and documentary evidence by which
the articles of charges are proposed to be proved shall be produced
by or on behalf of the Disciplinary Authority. The evidence shall be
recorded as far as possible on day-to-day basis till the evidence on
behalf of the Disciplinary Authority is completed. The witnesses shall
be examined by or on behalf of the Presenting Officer and they may
be cross examined by or on behalf of the Government Servant. The
Presenting Officer shall be entitled to re-examine the witnesses on
any points on which they have been cross examined, but not on any
new matter without the permission of the Inquiring Authority. The
Inquiring Authority may also put such questions to the witnesses as
it thinks fit. But, this procedure under Sub-Rule (10) of Rule 20 has
not been complied, which is mandatory.
Recording of evidence is only to prove a particular charge when
the Government Servant/Delinquent Officer denied the charges and
it is one of the methods to prove the charge, affording an opportunity
to disprove the testimony of the witnesses by cross-examining the
witnesses produced by the Presenting Officer by the Government
Servant or on his behalf. This procedure was totally deviated by the
Inquiry Officer which vitiates the entire proceedings, since no
evidence was recorded and the question of cross-examination of the
witnesses by the Delinquent Officer/Government Servant does not
arise to rebut the testimony of those witnesses. On this ground of MSM,J WP_15427_2020
violation of mandatory rule, the entire enquiry is liable to be set-
aside.
Sub-Rule (11) of Rule 20 further mandates that, if it appears
necessary before the closure of the case on behalf of the Disciplinary
Authority, the Inquiring Authority may, in its discretion, allow the
Presenting Officer to produce evidence not included in the list given
to the Government Servant or may itself call for new evidence or
recall and re-examine any witness. Since Sub-Rule (10) of Rule 20 is
not complied with, question of complying Sub-Rule (11)(a,b & c) of
Rule 20 does not arise.
When the case for the Disciplinary Authority is closed, the
Government Servant shall be required to state his defence orally or
in writing as he may prefer and to submit a list of witnesses to be
examined on his behalf for which purpose the case may be
adjourned to a date not exceeding five days. If the defence is made
orally, it shall be recorded and the Government Servant shall be
required to sign the record. In either case, a copy of the statement of
defence and the list of defence witness may be provided to the
presenting officer, if any, appointed. The case shall be adjourned to a
date not exceeding ten days for production of defence evidence.
(vide Sub-Rule (12) of Rule 20).
The evidence on behalf of the Government Servant shall then
be produced. The Government Servant may examine himself in his
own behalf if he so prefers. The witnesses produced by the
Government Servant shall then be examined and shall be liable to
cross examination, re-examination and examination by the Inquiring MSM,J WP_15427_2020
Authority according to the provisions applicable to the witnesses for
the Disciplinary Authority. (vide Sub-Rule (13) of Rule 20).
The Inquiring Authority may after the Government Servant
closes his case and shall, if the Government Servant has not
examined himself, generally question him on the circumstances
appearing against him in the evidence for purpose of enabling the
Government Servant to explain any circumstances appearing in the
evidence against him. (vide Sub-Rule (14) of Rule 20).
The mandatory requirement under Sub-Rule (14) of Rule 20 is
akin to examination of an accused under Section 313 Cr.P.C and it is
mandatory. In the present case, no witnesses were examined,
question of examination of the Delinquent Officer/Government
Servant himself does not arise and consequently the examination of
the Government Servant/petitioner herein under Sub-Rule (14) of
Rule 20 does not arise.
A bare look, report of the Inquiry Officer/Special Deputy
Collector (KRRC) vide File No.09/2018/SDC(KRRC) dated
24.09.2018 was sent to the office of the District Collector,
Srikakulam. That does not disclose the compliance of any mandatory
procedure prescribed under Rule 20. The Inquiry Officer did not
record evidence of any witness and did not mark any documents
though the petitioner herein/government servant denied the charges
stoutly. No list of witnesses or documents are also annexed to the
report, except filing a bunch of material papers collected by him
personally without affording any opportunity to the government MSM,J WP_15427_2020
servant. Therefore, failure to follow the mandatory procedure
specified under Rule 20 of the Rules vitiates the entire procedure.
The duty of the Enquiry Officer is to fix the date and time of
the enquiry and give due intimation thereof to the delinquent as also
to witnesses. The enquiry officer may also choose the venue of the
enquiry, if necessary, ascertaining the convenience of the delinquent.
But it does not mean that the choosing of the venue of the enquiry
suo motu by the enquiry officer would vitiate the enquiry and such
choosing does not violate the principles of natural justice. There
cannot be any hard and fast rule as to where the enquiry against as
employee is to be held and the only thing to be seen is whether the
employee is in any way denied the opportunity of defending himself
because the enquiry officer suo motu chooses the venue of the
enquiry. (vide Bibhuti Bhushan Paul v. State of West Bengal2)
The Enquiry Officer may also ask the delinquent to cite the
defence witnesses and when the delinquent cites the defence
witnesses, the enquiry officer has to issue summons to such
witnesses, if they are under his administrative control. At the
appointed time he has to conduct the enquiry, which includes the
recording of statements, allowing the witnesses to be cross-
examined, admitting documents into evidence etc. But the enquiry
officer would not be justified in looking into records which are
unspecified and relying on them in is report without intimating to
the delinquent as to what records he had looked into. Such a defect
AIR 1967 Cal.29 MSM,J WP_15427_2020
would vitiate the proceedings. (vide Manmatha Nath Ghosh v.
Director of Public Instruction, Govt. of West Bengal3)
The Enquiry Officer should act with unbiased mind, supply the
petitioner the relevant material documents and must allow him to
cross examine departmental witnesses and if these opportunities are
denied, it would vitiate the inquiry. (vide Shiraguppi v. Deputy
Superintendent of Police4)
Thus, from the law declared by the Courts in the judgments
referred supra, failure to follow the procedure prescribed under
Rule 20, which is based on principles of natural justice and failure to
follow the mandatory procedure amounts to denial of an opportunity
and it amounts to violation of principles of natural justice.
The only legal principles with which inquiring authorities are
primarily concerned are the principles of natural justice which
basically are that (i) the charged officer should be given a reasonable
opportunity to present his case; (ii) evidence against him should be
taken in his presence; (iii) he should have an opportunity to cross
examine the witnesses produced in support of the charges and (iv) he
should be given an opportunity to produce his own witnesses and
documents. All other laws of procedure have been relaxed for
departmental enquiries. Even the provisions of the Indian Evidence
Act and the Criminal Procedure Code, except in so far as they refer to
the general principles of natural justice already referred to, are not
applicable to a departmental enquiry. The principles of natural
justice are already incorporated in the CCA Rules and as long as the
AIR 1958 Cal.49
1977 (2) SLR 836 (Ker.) MSM,J WP_15427_2020
Inquiring Authority follows these rules, particularly all the 23 sub-
rules of Rule 20, which lay down step by step, stage by stage
procedure, neither the disciplinary authority who has appointed him
nor the law courts are likely to find fault with the Inquiry.
Thus, compliance of the mandatory procedure by the Inquiry
Officer is only to afford opportunity at every stage to the Government
Servant to defend himself and failure to follow such procedure would
cause serious prejudice and it amounts to denial of an opportunity,
thereby, such enquiry report submitted in violation of the procedure
under Rule 20 is vitiated by material irregularities.
As discussed above, in the present case, the Inquiry Officer
failed to comply the mandatory procedure prescribed from Sub-Rules
(1) to (23) in substance and such failure would vitiate the entire
proceedings.
Learned Government Pleader for Services-II contended that, on
receipt of report from the Inquiry Officer, the disciplinary authority
i.e. the first respondent issued notice to the petitioner in compliance
of Rule 20, calling for his written representation/additional
statement under Rule 21, to take action and on receipt of report,
penalty of stoppage of two increments was imposed, thereby, it is not
an irregularity.
No doubt, a notice was issued and imposed penalty. When the
Inquiry Officer failed to follow the procedure prescribed under
Rule 20, mere issuance of a notice under Rule 21 for imposing major
penalty prescribed under Rule 9 is not sufficient to impose such MSM,J WP_15427_2020
punishment/major penalty upon the Government Servant/petitioner
herein. As such, the penalty imposed against the petitioner by the
first respondent is illegal.
As discussed above, Inquiry Report is illegal and not in
compliance of mandatory procedure prescribed under Rule 20 of the
Rules. On this ground, the Inquiry Report is liable to be set-aside,
declaring the same as illegal and arbitrary. As a sequel of setting-
aside Inquiry Report, the penalty imposed against this petitioner i.e.
stoppage of two increments with cumulative effect is liable to be set-
aside. Accordingly, the Inquiry Report submitted by the fourth
respondent to the first respondent and the major penalty imposed by
the first respondent are hereby set-aside. However, this will not
preclude the first respondent to order fresh enquiry, if advised, with
a direction to conduct enquiry by strict adherence to the procedure
prescribed under the Rules.
One of the request made by the learned counsel for the
petitioner is, to consider the case of promotion of the petitioner to the
next higher cadre consequent upon setting-aside the Inquiry Report
and major penalty imposed against this petitioner.
No doubt, when this Court set-aside the Inquiry Report and
consequently, the penalty imposed upon this petitioner, the
departmental proceedings are deemed to have been ended, unless
fresh departmental enquiry is ordered, as observed in the earlier
paragraphs. Consequently, the petitioner is entitled to be considered
for promotion to the next higher cadre on par with his juniors in MSM,J WP_15427_2020
terms of Andhra Pradesh State and Subordinate Service Rules, 1996.
Hence, the respondents are directed to consider the candidature of
this petitioner for promotion to the next higher cadre, if he is
otherwise eligible.
In the result, writ petition is allowed, setting aside the
proceedings in Rc.No.581/2018/A2 dated 02.12.2018 including the
proceedings in Rc.No.581/2018/A2 dated 10.06.2018 issued by the
first respondent, as well as the consequential proceedings
No.VS.I(3)/1321/2019 dated 26.08.2020 issued by the second
respondent as illegal and arbitrary, while directing the respondents
to forthwith consider the candidature of the petitioner to the post of
Tahsildar in Grade-I as per his seniority before promoting any
juniors to the petitioner with all consequential benefits, if he is
otherwise eligible. It is made clear that this order will not preclude
the first respondent to order enquiry afresh commencing from
appointment of an Enquiry Officer, as Rule 20(3) is already complied,
if necessary. No costs.
Consequently, miscellaneous petitions pending, if any, shall
stand closed.
_________________________________________ JUSTICE M. SATYANARAYANA MURTHY Date:17.03.2021
Note: Registry is directed to return the copy of enquiry record under proper acknowledgment to the learned Government Pleader for Services-I.
b/o
SP
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